GATE Questions

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Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, ...., 19, 20}=> n(s) = 20
Let E = event of getting a multiple of 4 or 15
=multiples od 4 are {4, 8, 12, 16, 20}
And multiples of 15 means multiples of 3 and 5
= {3, 6 , 9, 12, 15, 18, 5, 10, 15, 20}.
= the common multiple is only (15).
=> E = n(E)= 6
Required Probability = P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 6/20 = 3/10.

circumference of A = 2πr = 8 => so r = 4π
volume = π×4π2×10 = 160π
circumference of B = 2πr   = 10 => so r = 5π
volume = π×5π2×8 =  200π
so ratio of capacities = 160/200 = 0.8
so capacity of A will be 80% of the capacity of B.

Draw the two chords as shown in the figure. Let O be the center of the circle. Draw OC
perpendicular to both chords. That divides the two chords in half.
So CD = 10 and AB = 14. Draw radii OA and OD, both equal to radius r.
We are given that BC = 5, the distance between the two chords. Let
OB = x.

We use the Pythagorean theorem on right triangle ABO

AO² = AB² + OB²
r² = 14² + x²

We use the Pythagorean theorem on right triangle DCO

DO² = CD² + OC²

We see that OC = OB+BC = x+5, so

r² = 10² + (x+5)²

So we have a system of two equations:

r² = 14² + x²
r² = 10² + (x+5)²

Since both left sides equal r², set the right sides
equal to each other.

14² + x² = 10² + (x+5)²
196 + x² = 100 + x² + 10x + 25
196 = 125 + 10x
71 = 10x
7.1 = x

r² = 14² + x²
r² = 196 + (7.1)²
r² = 196 + 50.41
r² = 246.41
r = √246.41
r = 15.69745202 cm

Abhinav Bindra is an Indian professional shooter who is the world and Olympic champion in the 10 m air rifle event.

Rolling friction or rolling drag is the force resisting the motion when a body rolls on a surface. It is mainly caused by non-elastic effects, that is, not all the energy needed for deformation of the wheel, roadbed, etc... is recovered when the pressure is removed.

Another cause of rolling resistance lies in the slippage between the wheel and the surface, which dissipates energy.

Those are stairs which goes up and down without moving.

We know that,

Total number of balls n(S) = 26

Number of vowels n(E) = 5

Hence, required probability = n(E)/n(S) = 5/26.

Money invested by Rajan before 1 year was = Rs. 100000

Money in UK pounds @ 75 is = 100000/75 = 1333.33 Pounds

Now, after 1 year invested amount was appreciated by 20%

=> 20% of 1333.33 = 266.66

Total investment becomes = 1333.33 + 266.66 = 1600 Pounds

This 1600 Pounds @ Indian currency at 80 = 1600 x 80 = Rs. 1,28,000

Hence, Rajan's investment of Rs. 1,00,000 becomes Rs. 1,28,000 in 1 year

Therefore, his profit % = [(128000 - 100000)/100000] x 100 = 28%.