Certification Questions

Q:

A quality audit is

A) a structured, independent review to determine whether project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures. B) the process of regularly evaluating overall project performance to provide confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standards.
C) an approach where the team members meet regularly to improve the process of quality control on their project. D) the process of determining the appropriate actions to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project to provide added benefits to project stakeholders.
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) a structured, independent review to determine whether project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.

Explanation:

“A quality audit is a structured, independent review to determine whether project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.”

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Filed Under: PMP Certification

0 4519
Q:

You need to gather the IP address of a remote switch that is located in Hawaii. What can you do to find the address?

A) Issue the show ip route command on the router connected to the switch B) Issue the show cdp neighbor command on the router connected to the switch
C) Issue the show ip arp command on the router connected to the switch D) Issue the show cdp neighbors detail command on the router connected to the switch
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: D) Issue the show cdp neighbors detail command on the router connected to the switch

Explanation:

Although option A is certainly the "best" answer, unfortunately option E will work just fine and your boss would probably prefer you to use the show cdp neighbors detail command.

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Filed Under: CCNA

0 4509
Q:

Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. You have 10 Web servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). You need to archive all of the application event logs for all the Web servers. The archived logs must contain all information from the original logs. What should you do?

A) Connect to each Web Server by using Event Viewer. Save the Application logs as the CSV file type. B) Connect to each Web Server by using Event Viewer. Save the Application logs as the Event Log file type.
C) On each Web server, open the Security Configuration and Analysis snap in, analyze the computer, and then export the settings. D) Run Security Configuration Wizard for each Web Server. Save the data to an .inf file.
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) Connect to each Web Server by using Event Viewer. Save the Application logs as the Event Log file type.

Explanation:
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9 4472
Q:

Which of the following statements about pro forma invoices are correct?

A. In copying control for proforma invoices, the quantity/value plus/minus field is not configurable

B. Account determination procedure is assigned to a proforma invoice

C. In copying control for proforma invoices, the quantity/value plus/minus field must be set to "plus"

D. Account determination procedure is always not assigned to a proforma invoice

Answer

Answer : A , D

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Subject: SAP SD

0 4463
Q:

We can still post credit memos for AUC after it has been fully capitalized if we allow negative APC.

A) TRUE B) FALSE
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) TRUE

Explanation:
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Subject: SAP FI

0 4463
Q:

Why are risk tolerances and thresholds important to identify in the risk management Plan?

A) Tolerances and thresholds, when documented, can help to define the target by which the project team can measure the effectiveness of the risk response plan execution B) Tolerances and thresholds help to define how often the risk management process will be performed
C) Tolerances and thresholds determine what tools and data sources will be used in risk management D) Tolerances and thresholds provide the basis for costing the risk management process as well as defining how risk activities will be recorded
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) Tolerances and thresholds, when documented, can help to define the target by which the project team can measure the effectiveness of the risk response plan execution

Explanation:

Answer B defines the timing that should be addressed in the risk management plan. Answer C defines the methodology that should be identified in a risk management plan. Answer D touches on the budgeting and tracking that should be defined in the risk management plan.

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Filed Under: PMP Certification

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Q:

Mention different memories used in a CISCO router ?

Answer

Different Memories used in a CISCO router are as follows :


NVRAM stores the startup configuration file.

DRAM stores the configuration file that is being executed.

Flash Memory – stores the Cisco IOS.

 

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Subject: CCNA
Job Role: Network Engineer

7 4449
Q:

With which network type will OSPF establish router adjacencies but not perform the DR/BDR election process?

A) Point-to-Point B) Backbone area 0
C) Broadcast multi-access D) Non-broadcast multi-access
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: A) Point-to-Point

Explanation:

No DR is assigned on any type of point-to-point link. No DR/BDR is assigned on the NBMA point-to-multipoint due to the hub/spoke  topology. DR and BDR are elected on broadcast and non-broadcast multi-access network. Frame relay is a non-broadcast multiaccess (NBMA) network by default.

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Filed Under: CCNA

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