Quantitative Aptitude - Arithmetic Ability Questions

Q:

A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 km./hr. when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced?

A) 8.2 hrs B) 6.5 hrs
C) 8 hrs D) 7.2 hrs
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: D) 7.2 hrs

Explanation:

After servicing, the distance covered by car in 6 hours = 60 * 6 = 360 km Without servicing, speed of car = 50 kmph => Required time = Distance/speed = 360/50 = 7.2 hrs.

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Time and Distance

2 3847
Q:

Mr. Rajan invested Rs 1,00,000 in US Stock Markets when the GBPINR rate was 75. After one year his investment appreciated by 20% in GBP terms. He sold of his investments and repatriated the money to India at the then existing rate of 80. what was real returns in INR?

A) loss of 24% B) gain of 28%
C) loss of 28% D) gain of 20%
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) gain of 28%

Explanation:

Money invested by Rajan before 1 year was = Rs. 100000

Money in UK pounds @ 75 is = 100000/75 = 1333.33 Pounds

 

Now, after 1 year invested amount was appreciated by 20%

=> 20% of 1333.33 = 266.66

 

Total investment becomes = 1333.33 + 266.66 = 1600 Pounds

This 1600 Pounds @ Indian currency at 80 = 1600 x 80 = Rs. 1,28,000

 

Hence, Rajan's investment of Rs. 1,00,000 becomes Rs. 1,28,000 in 1 year

 

Therefore, his profit % = [(128000 - 100000)/100000] x 100 = 28%.

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Profit and Loss
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams , CAT , GATE
Job Role: Analyst , Bank Clerk , Bank PO

9 3846
Q:

4 mat-weavers can weave 4 mats in 4 days. At the same rate, how many mats would be woven by 8 mat-weavers in 8 days?

A) 4 B) 8
C) 12 D) 16
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: D) 16

Explanation:

Let the required number of bottles be x.

 

 

 

More weavers, More mats (Direct Proportion)

 

 

 

More days, More mats (Direct Proportion)

 

 

 

Wavers   4:8Days       4:8  :: 4:x

 

 

 

 4 x 4 x x = 8 x 8 x 4

 

 

 

=> x= 8*8*44*4

 

 

 

=>  x = 16.

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

2 3842
Q:

What is the probability that a couple with four children have atleast one girl?

A) 0.0625 B) 0.9375
C) 0.5 D) 0.0257
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 0.9375

Explanation:

Here,n = 4(children)

P(girl)= 0.5

P(of atleast one girl)= 1 - P(no girls)

                             = 1 - 0.0625 = 0.9375

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Probability

3 3838
Q:

(0.75)31-0.75+0.75+0.752+1 = ?

A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) 2

Explanation:

(0.75)31-0.75+0.75+(0.75)2+1=(0.75)3+(1-0.75)(1)2+(0.75)2+1×0.751-0.75 

 

 

(0.75)3+(1)3-(0.75)31-0.75 =10.25=4=2

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

6 3836
Q:

Find the odd man out 1 4 9 16 22 36?

A) 9 B) 16
C) 22 D) 36
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: C) 22

Explanation:

In the given series 1 4 9 16 22 36

1 = 1 x 1 

4 = 2 x 2

9 = 3 x 3

16 = 4 x 4

25 = 5 x 5 (Not 22)

36 = 6 x 6

 

Hence, the odd man in the series is 22.

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Odd Man Out
Exam Prep: AIEEE , Bank Exams , CAT , GATE
Job Role: Analyst , Bank Clerk , Bank PO

13 3832
Q:

A man purchased a bullock and a cart for Rs 1800. He sold the bullock at a profit of 20% and the cart at a profit of 30%.His total profit was 155/6 %. Find the cost price of bullock.

A) Rs 650 B) Rs 750
C) Rs 900 D) Rs 800
 
Answer & Explanation Answer: B) Rs 750

Explanation:

CP of bullock and cart = 1800

Let price of bullock be x and cart be (1800 –x)

SP of bullock and cart = 1800 + 155/6 X 1800 = 2265

Also, 1.2x + 1.3 (1800 –x) = 2265

⇒1.2x –1.3x = -75

⇒x = 750

Report Error

View Answer Report Error Discuss

Filed Under: Profit and Loss
Exam Prep: Bank Exams

2 3830
Q:

Relation Between Efficiencies

6 boys and 8 girls finish a job in 6 days and 14 boys and 10 girls finish the same job in 4 days. In how many days working together 1 boy and 1 girl can finish the work?

Answer

Sol : In this kind of questions we find the work force required to complete the work in 1 day (or given unit of time) then we equate the work force to find the relationship between the efficiencies (or work rate) between the different workers.


 


Therefore, 6B+8G = 6 days


 => 6(6B+8G)= 1 day  (inversely proportional)


 => 36B+48G =1         ( by unitary method)


 


Again  14B+10G = 4days


 => 56B+40G =1


 


so, here it is clear that either we employ 36B and 48G to finish the work in 1 day or 56B and 40G to finish the same job in 1 day. thus , we can say


 => 36B+48G = 56B+40G


 => G= 2.5B


Thus a Girl is 2.5 times as efficient as a boy.


 


Now, since  36B+48G = 1


 => 36B+48(2.5 B)=1


 =>156B=1


i.e., to finish the job in 1 day 156 boys are required or the amount of work is 156 boys-days


 


Again    1G+1B=2.5B+1B=3.5B


 


Now, since 156 boys can finish the job in 1 day


so 1 boy can finish the job in 156 days


Therefore, 3.5 boys can finish the job in 1×1563.5= 47 days.


 


 

Report Error

View answer Workspace Report Error Discuss

Subject: Time and Work

2 3830